Looking for prior art
Looking for prior art
Posted Aug 24, 2012 23:30 UTC (Fri) by giraffedata (guest, #1954)In reply to: Looking for prior art by DavidS
Parent article: Mobile patent wars: Google goes on the attack
Technical artifacts should only be allowed exactly one form of legal protection
That seems to be the case to me. Patent and copyright cover such fundementally different things, nothing could be covered by both, and both patent and copyright involve disclosure, so couldn't cover the same thing as a trade secret.
Now, if patent applications did include source listings, then patents would apparently be redundant with copyright. So it's a good thing they don't.
Posted Aug 24, 2012 23:35 UTC (Fri)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
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Posted Aug 25, 2012 16:45 UTC (Sat)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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I stand corrected. I remember reading that the lifetime of a copyright is measured from time of publication. Is that still true? Does this mean the copyright is actually in force before the clock starts running?
Posted Aug 25, 2012 17:07 UTC (Sat)
by dlang (guest, #313)
[Link] (14 responses)
This is why printed classical music is still under copyright, it's not the copyright of the author, it's copyright of that particular copy by the publisher.
So if Disney were to reprint "Steamboat Willie" and re-release it, they would have a new copyright on the new version
yes, this can get confusing and ugly because the publisher doesn't gain copyright on the older work, it's only their 'version' of it that gets the protection, and the original author could give others permission to publish the work as well, which would get a separate copyright.
But anything that's produced has copyright from the moment it's 'fixed' (written down, recorded, etc)
Posted Aug 25, 2012 20:17 UTC (Sat)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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I'm highly skeptical. Besides the fact that it creates bizarre ownership situations, it doesn't serve the purpose of copyright at all to give someone property rights just for publishing something that was already published.
For the classical music, I think you're thinking of new arrangements of the music - something with creative content. If it's just the same sheet music Beethoven wrote, I don't believe it.
It does seem like the Berne Convention changed (back in 1982) the relevance of publication in the US. When I heard something had to be published to have copyright, it was probably before that. I think the author actually had to claim copyright in those days too (hence the copyright notice found at the beginning of every book, which is mostly redundant now).
Posted Aug 25, 2012 20:36 UTC (Sat)
by dlang (guest, #313)
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it may be that they are claiming copyright on the compilation of all the music together, but somhow they make it so that you can't copy the music, even though it's note-for-note identical to something published 100 years ago.
Posted Aug 25, 2012 20:43 UTC (Sat)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
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Posted Aug 25, 2012 20:42 UTC (Sat)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
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Posted Aug 25, 2012 23:18 UTC (Sat)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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Well sure — restored, remastered, re-edited, translated into another language. That's creative content and deserves a new copyright. We were talking about merely reprinting.
If a phone book doesn't enjoy copyright protection (which we know from the famous 1991 US Supreme Court Feist decision, which said merely printing names and phone numbers in alphabetical order is not creative enough to deserve copyright), then I can't see how a second press run from the same galleys that produced the first gives you a second copyright. Or a re-typesetting of the same notes you find in 100-year-old sheet music.
Posted Aug 25, 2012 23:28 UTC (Sat)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
[Link] (8 responses)
Just curious, why do you concede that re-editing has creative content, but deny it to re-typesetting printed music?
Posted Aug 26, 2012 21:14 UTC (Sun)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
[Link] (6 responses)
Just because re-editing involves the same kind of intellectual work as what was protected by the original copyright: writing. Composition of words. If there is any significant creativity in typesetting music, it's a different kind from what went into composing the music, which is what we generally think of as protected by sheet music's copyright.
I suppose it's conceivable that typesetting music is creative enough to be copyrightable, and if that's all that gets re-copyrighted when someone publishes Beethoven sheet music, that isn't unbelievable for me. I thought we were talking about a copyright wherein a person couldn't legally read the notes off the page, type them into a music publishing program, and print new copies of the composition.
Posted Aug 26, 2012 21:40 UTC (Sun)
by dlang (guest, #313)
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Posted Aug 26, 2012 21:55 UTC (Sun)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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Well assuming that's true, I withdraw my acceptance of the idea that re-editing a book creates addition copyright of any kind.
(Assuming "re-editing" means redoing what an "editor" does).
Posted Aug 27, 2012 0:41 UTC (Mon)
by Cyberax (✭ supporter ✭, #52523)
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Posted Aug 26, 2012 21:42 UTC (Sun)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
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Posted Aug 27, 2012 9:42 UTC (Mon)
by anselm (subscriber, #2796)
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Music publishers bring out new editions of old works all the time. Usually they add stuff like fingering or dynamics that wasn't in the original, just so they have something obvious to copyright. This is on top of re-typesetting the music according to modern customs, since the original old scores are often quite difficult to make out even if you photograph them 1:1 for reproduction.
Even »urtext« editions which try to present the music as originally written by, say, Bach or Beethoven normally add »critical« annotations along the lines of »In bar 39, the so-and-so edition of 1865 has an A where all the other editions have an A-flat«.
If you were to locate a very old copy of the music in question in your granny's laundry chest, you would be perfectly free to scan these pages and put them up on the Internet, even if modern editions of the same music exist. You would also be perfectly free to take your laptop, with a music typesetting program on it, to your friendly neighbourhood music library and type in stuff from very old scores there. This is basically what the music publishers do, anyway.
Posted Aug 27, 2012 10:46 UTC (Mon)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
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Posted Sep 4, 2012 9:46 UTC (Tue)
by Wol (subscriber, #4433)
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Just look at lilypond, and in particular their "essay on music" whatever it's called. Mechanical typesetting can *easily* create music that is very hard to play.
Cheers,
Posted Aug 25, 2012 17:11 UTC (Sat)
by man_ls (guest, #15091)
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Posted Aug 25, 2012 0:15 UTC (Sat)
by anselm (subscriber, #2796)
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Not necessarily. A patent covering an invention with source code in C would presumably also extend to the same invention if implemented in Prolog. Copyright would only cover the C implementation (and possibly implementations in other languages where the code could be trivially translated from C).
Also consider the following:
Posted Aug 25, 2012 16:59 UTC (Sat)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
[Link] (22 responses)
You're just talking about issuance of the patent, though, not validity, right?
If John invents something and starts practicing it, and then Mary produces a patent for the same invention and demands that John stop, but John proves that Mary only dreamed it up and never actually proved it would work, I believe that means Mary didn't invent the thing, so her patent is invalid and John doesn't have to stop.
Concerning patent applications hypothetically having to contain source code, I think there are two cases to consider: 1) the source code is the claim. In this case, I don't think it would cover the same method in a different language, and the patent seems highly redundant with copyright. 2) source code is in supporting material, offered just to prove it works, i.e. the invention is complete. In that case, the patent is still quite different from a copyright.
Posted Aug 27, 2012 10:15 UTC (Mon)
by anselm (subscriber, #2796)
[Link] (18 responses)
Mary only needs to get the patent office to sign off on the patent application. She doesn't need to actually produce the working invention, although that would probably help if the patent examiner isn't convinced that the invention might work. It is up to the patent office to prove that an invention cannot in fact work, but the patent office, which after all receives its funding essentially based on the number of patents granted, tends to accept anything that isn't obviously a perpetual-motion machine. You can go to the patent office today and apply for a patent on a method of mining Jupiter's moons for gold even if there is no feasible way of putting that method into practice anytime soon, and that patent will very probably be granted as long as your method looks remotely doable and hasn't been patented by someone else yet.
If Mary manages to obtain a patent on John's invention before John does, without actually doing the inventing herself, that is just John's hard luck. He can always try to take Mary to court in order to prove »prior art«. This can become tedious and very expensive. In fact, this is why people who are otherwise not big fans of the patent system still patent stuff, or at least »defensively publish« things that they don't actually intend to patent (or indeed build or market), just so if somebody else tries to patent the same thing later it is easier to establish that it isn't a new idea.
The main problem underlying this is that, when trying to figure out whether an invention is »new« (as opposed to »possible according to the laws of nature«) the patent office tends to look mostly at other patents and official defensive publications, not at all the tech that is available somewhere in the world, so it is fairly easy to patent stuff that the patent office hasn't officially seen yet, even if it appears quite familiar to anybody else with eyes and ears. So merely doing something, even in plain sight, doesn't usually keep the patent office from giving a patent on whatever it is that you are doing to somebody else if you haven't formally written it up and submitted it to the patent office first. (There is the additional safeguard that inventions must not be »obvious« to be patentable, but, as RMS once said in a talk, the patent office usually understands »obvious« as meaning »obvious to a person with an IQ of 70«.)
Posted Aug 27, 2012 15:55 UTC (Mon)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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I notice you focus on the patent getting issued, whereas I was talking about the patent being valid. While a court is required to presume a patent is valid just because it was issued, adversaries overcome that presumption all the time and prove an issued patent is invalid.
One way for a patent to be invalid is for the patent holder not have invented the thing claimed. Patent law says invention is more than dreaming up something. It recognizes Edison's definition, "invention is 1% inspiration and 99% perspiration." If Mary didn't perspire and John did, Mary's patent won't stop John from practicing the invention.
I don't know where the law draws the line as to how far past dreaming something up you have to go before you've invented it, but I know you have to go somewhere toward proving the idea works.
Posted Aug 28, 2012 22:05 UTC (Tue)
by wookey (guest, #5501)
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Note that I have taken a lot more notice of European and UK patent law than US, and they do differ in various ways, possibly including this detail of 'needs to actually work', but I doubt it.
Posted Aug 29, 2012 2:10 UTC (Wed)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
[Link] (4 responses)
Well do you believe that patent law requires more of an invention than just having an idea? Can you patent an idea?
Posted Aug 29, 2012 7:36 UTC (Wed)
by dlang (guest, #313)
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that's basically what you are doing.
It would be really nice if patents required some demonstration that they work, but that's not the case
Posted Aug 29, 2012 10:26 UTC (Wed)
by wookey (guest, #5501)
[Link] (1 responses)
But still, whether it 'works' (how exactly would you define that?), really isn't part of the legal definition, and thus isn't something you can usefully challenge on, SFAIK.
We do have an actual (european) patent agent on LWN these days who might be able to give chapter and verse on this point.
Posted Aug 29, 2012 18:10 UTC (Wed)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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As someone pointed out earlier, those patents aren't really a test of whether you can patent a mere idea, because it's usually obvious from the idea alone that it works. Of course, it also means that the maxim "you can't patent an idea" can be construed as false, because you might say there exist cases where the idea is indistinguishable from the invention.
I still don't know whether you believe the legal definition distinguishes between idea and invention, which is what's really relevant to this thread. Whether that difference consists of "proving that it works" is a fuzzier question.
Posted Sep 1, 2012 22:17 UTC (Sat)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
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No. The idea must be "reduced to practice" in US terminology. The distinction might seem fine but it is important.
http://www.uspto.gov/web/offices/pac/mpep/documents/2100_...
Posted Sep 1, 2012 22:55 UTC (Sat)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
[Link] (10 responses)
Not working implies that "the European patent does not disclose the invention in a manner sufficiently clear and complete for it to be carried out by a person skilled in the art" to quote Art 100 (b) EPC.
http://www.epo.org/law-practice/legal-texts/html/epc/2010...
In real life oppositions you always try to use this line of attack. And it works as shown for instance here:
Posted Sep 1, 2012 23:21 UTC (Sat)
by anselm (subscriber, #2796)
[Link] (8 responses)
Would it be possible to obtain a European patent on a method to mine precious metals on Pluto if that method is very clearly and completely described and the only problem is that it is not feasible (now) to go there and do it? In other words, will a patent be granted if the patent application causes »a person skilled in the art« to say »Hmm, yes, that would work once we get to Pluto«, or must it actually be possible to do whatever the patent application claims in front of the patent examiner before a patent will be granted?
Posted Sep 2, 2012 3:40 UTC (Sun)
by Cyberax (✭ supporter ✭, #52523)
[Link] (6 responses)
Posted Sep 2, 2012 4:52 UTC (Sun)
by dlang (guest, #313)
[Link] (5 responses)
Posted Sep 2, 2012 6:40 UTC (Sun)
by Cyberax (✭ supporter ✭, #52523)
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Posted Sep 2, 2012 11:17 UTC (Sun)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
[Link] (2 responses)
First of all the initial milestone patents tend to be narrower in scope than first expected by the inventor thus opening up for patenting or publishing of alternative embodiments that bring about the same effect. The first lasers were like the ruby laser but it has been shown that with dye lasers even flowing liquids can be used. Chemical gas reaction lasers are even more different.
Secondly the practical embodiments can turn out to be patentable in which case a cross license agreement with the patent proprietor of the first patent is the normal approach.
Also patents do not last for ever, future embodiments can reuse features from the first patent and still come up with something patentable without the need for licences from others.
It should also be remembered that in some jurisdictions around the world you are allowed to work a patented invention if it is for research and not for commercial or operative purposes.
Posted Sep 4, 2012 9:54 UTC (Tue)
by Wol (subscriber, #4433)
[Link] (1 responses)
Not that the courts will actually throw the switch, but if there's only one way to do it, then that way is not patent-eligible subject matter!
Cheers,
Posted Sep 7, 2012 20:15 UTC (Fri)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
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Can you provide a reference for this?
Posted Sep 2, 2012 18:28 UTC (Sun)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
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I don't know anything about this patent, but I highly doubt it gave someone a monopoly on something that still required experimentation to get it to work.
Though the patent holder might not have got it to work himself, he described in detail how to do so without extensive additional experimentation, and if those instructions don't result in a working, useful laser, that patent didn't give him a monopoly on anything.
I suspect it's an issue of a patent on a simple laser that was fully invented and useful, but then covered all the far more useful kinds of lasers that were invented later as extensions of it. In those cases, the inventor of the extension also gets a patent, and one needs both patents in order to use it.
In my one patent law class, we studied the patent for the electron tube diode. An electron tube diode is a very useful thing, and the holder of that patent had it fully working before applying for the patent. That inventor did no work on an the electron tube triode, but ended up controlling the manufacture of those anyway, because you can't make a triode without practicing the technologies claimed for the diode. (We studied that because apparently the diode inventor wouldn't let the triode inventor sell triodes and the triode inventor wouldn't let the diode inventor sell triodes either and triodes were thus withheld from the world -- a classic breakdown of the free market economics that are supposed to make the patent system work).
Posted Sep 2, 2012 11:02 UTC (Sun)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
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If you solve the problem of going there in a non-obvious way you can get a patent, however putting the mining feature into claim 1 would be unwise. Claim 1 is normally the most important claim since it defines the invention in the broadest scope.
So claim 1 would be for a non obvious method for space travel.
Claim 1 is an independent claim and claims 2 and 3 are dependent claims, depending on previous claims. In prosecuting the application you start with a wide claim 1 and then you bring in features from dependent claims to overcome objections from the Examiner.
These wide claims in a patent *application* is a frequent source of objections from the software community. The final patent tends to be much narrower in scope. The reason for this approach is twofold:
> In other words, will a patent be granted if the patent application causes »a person skilled in the art« to say »Hmm, yes, that would work once we get to Pluto«,
Correct. The amount of further practical engineering work required varies around the world. In Europe the person skilled in the art should not have to undertake "undue experimentations".
In the US it appears that a fair bit of experimentation is allowed if the story of Richard Feynman's patent for nuclear space propulsion is to be believed
> or must it actually be possible to do whatever the patent application claims in front of the patent examiner before a patent will be granted?
That is not a requirement since it would be impractical. For instance devices for oil platforms are unlikely to even fit into the Examiner's office. It is also unlikely that an Examiner would even want to see a component for a nuclear reactor core in operation (at this point I am tastefully avoiding commenting on specific Examiners...).
In the old days it was a requirement to demonstrate a working model before the USPTO but this was abandoned.
Supposedly there is one example: if you make a perpetual motion machine the Examiner will want to see it. So does any patent attorney/agent who cares about his reputation.
Posted Sep 2, 2012 0:02 UTC (Sun)
by wookey (guest, #5501)
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Posted Sep 1, 2012 22:46 UTC (Sat)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
[Link] (2 responses)
This is not a realistic scenario. Instead you would invoke the First inventor defence act in the US (sorry, I haven't looked up the details) and in Europe you have similar defence in Art 70(4)(b) EPC.
More countries are described here:
Posted Sep 1, 2012 23:34 UTC (Sat)
by giraffedata (guest, #1954)
[Link] (1 responses)
It wasn't meant to be realistic; it was meant to exemplify a point, which from everything you've said appears to be valid: you can't patent a mere conception. If Mary's patent is based on something she conceived but never reduced to practice, she has no rights in John's invention based on the same idea.
However, I learned something from the section of the Manual of Patent Examining Procedure of the US Patent and Trademark Office that you cited: constructive reduction to practice. (For those not familiar with the legal lingo, "constructive" means fictional -- something the law assumes to be true even if it definitely isn't).
IIUC, constructive reduction to practice can substitute for actual reduction to practice, and consists of simply describing in the patent application how to build the thing and do something useful with it. So no, you don't have to prove it works in order to have invented, and thus to get a patent.
I assume that if it turns out later that the instructions in Mary's patent application don't work, that the entire patent is invalid and Mary doesn't have any rights in the invention even if there's some other way to make use of her idea.
Posted Sep 2, 2012 10:27 UTC (Sun)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
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If the disclosure is in itself makes the invention clear to a person skilled in the art the patent is valid even though an experimental verification has not been undertaken. This is often the case for mechanical inventions. The side effect is unfortunately that many will find it obvious in view of the description itself and disagree with the patent being granted. Where the description itself is not sufficiently convincing such as an improved escapement for a clock or pharmaceutical inventions.
> I assume that if it turns out later that the instructions in Mary's patent application don't work, that the entire patent is invalid and Mary doesn't have any rights in the invention even if there's some other way to make use of her idea.
The patent would be invalid for many reasons such as lack of sufficiency, lack of enablement and inequitable conduct. I have come across cases where the invention as disclosed cannot work as disclosed but where a small non-obvious change will make it work. That will not save the application but it opens up the possibility for claiming that patent application as your own (this is not trivial) and use it to establish a priority for subsequent applications where you do bring in sufficiency. This can happen in cases of industrial espionage.
Posted Sep 1, 2012 22:28 UTC (Sat)
by SecretEuroPatentAgentMan (guest, #66656)
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Strictly speaking, if the patent covers an invention in C it does not cover much else (doctrine of equivalence makes this a bit more complex). Still such a patent would be bizarre. What is normal practice is to describe an exemplary embodiment in for instance C but make clear that this is not limited to C. The scope of protection is determined by the claims and the claims should not refer to a single specific embodiment.
> An invention does not have to actually work in order to be patentable.
Copyright does not involve disclosure. If you can show that some third-party program has been copied from your secret software then you are afforded full copyright protection. It is harder to prove authorship with private documents, but that is just a technical detail: software is copyrighted from the moment it is written.
Copyright protection
Copyright protection
If you can show that some third-party program has been copied from your secret software then you are afforded full copyright protection... software is copyrighted from the moment it is written.
Copyright protection
Copyright protection
as I understand it, publication creates a new copyright on that copy.
Copyright protection
Perhaps music publishers claim copyright on the arrangement on the page; after all music type setting is a complex task. But I am not so sure that it would hold before a judge...
Copyright protection
IANAL, but I think he is right. And you are right about bizarre situations: the copyright applies to the new copy, but not to the old copy. This is the understanding that I have arrived at about this issue, illustrated by a few examples:
Copyright protection
These are not hypothetical situations, they arise all the time e.g. in Google Books.
Copyright protection
In the first case (reprint, reusing the galleys) then I think there is no margin for interpretation: in effect it is the same copy. Re-typesetting depends on whether there is any art to it. I suppose it depends on the following question: given the same content and the same constraints, is there only one possible output, or several? For text these days typesetting is almost always mechanical, for music I have no idea, honestly.
Copyright protection
Copyright protection
Just curious, why do you concede that re-editing has creative content, but deny it to re-typesetting printed music?
Copyright protection
Copyright protection
If editing is a creative enough endeavour, why does an editor of a book not get copyright on that book?
Copyright protection
Ah, now I understand: you mean something like a revised edition, not just a reprint.
Copyright protection
I thought we were talking about a copyright wherein a person couldn't legally read the notes off the page, type them into a music publishing program, and print new copies of the composition.
That would indeed be quite bizarre. I think a new edition of an old music work can restrict e.g. photocopying the exact pages, but not protect the music score in any way. The same would be true for a text book. But I am not an expert in any way, just a puny armchair copyright amateur.
Copyright protection
Would you also be free to take your laptop with a music typesetting program and type in stuff from the modern edition? I assume that, as long as you don't copy the new annotations, you are good to go: the mere work of e.g. compiling the score from older sources is not copyrighteable.
Copyright protection
Copyright protection
Wol
Interesting problem. The Berne Convention doesn't say, as it doesn't seem to apply to software. 17 USC, which apparently covers computer programs (although I can't find them explicity mentioned), makes no distinctions with other works:
Copyright protection
Copyright in a work created on or after January 1, 1978, subsists from its creation and, except as provided by the following subsections, endures for a term consisting of the life of the author and 70 years after the author’s death. [...] In the case of an anonymous work, a pseudonymous work, or a work made for hire, the copyright endures for a term of 95 years from the year of its first publication, or a term of 120 years from the year of its creation, whichever expires first"
I suppose it is similar in the relevant EU Directive.
Looking for prior art
Now, if patent applications did include source listings, then patents would apparently be redundant with copyright.
Patents with source code
An invention does not have to actually work in order to be patentable.
Patents with source code
If John invents something and starts practicing it, and then Mary produces a patent for the same invention and demands that John stop, but John proves that Mary only dreamed it up and never actually proved it would work, I believe that means Mary didn't invent the thing, so her patent is invalid and John doesn't have to stop.
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
I am not aware of anything in the patent system that requires
things to actually work.
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Most software patents are nothing more than an idea
But still, whether it 'works' (how exactly would you define that?), really isn't part of the legal definition,
Patents with source code
http://www.epo.org/law-practice/legal-texts/html/epc/2010...
Patents with source code
http://k-slaw.blogspot.com/2012/08/t-108208-be-prepared.html
Patents with source code
Not working implies that "the European patent does not disclose the invention in a manner sufficiently clear and complete for it to be carried out by a person skilled in the art" to quote Art 100 (b) EPC.
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
Wol
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
and how does giving one person a monopoly on something like a LASER
encourage the needed experimentation to get it to actually work,
Patents with source code
Claim 2 would be the method of claim 1 wherein the destination is Pluto, unless there is something special about travelling to Pluto.
Claim 3 would be the methods 1 - 2 wherein you mine Pluto, unless the space travel absolutely requires you going to Pluto and do some mining there.
- get the widest possible scope of protection, and
- get a search report that covers a wide part of the art so that you can determine your position compared to state of the art and your competitors.
http://www.myspace.com/richard_feynman/blog/332428072
http://www.patentmodel.org/
Patents with source code
Patents with source code
http://www.epo.org/law-practice/legal-texts/html/epc/2010...
http://www.uspto.gov/aia_implementation/20120113-pur_repo...
Patents with source code
If John invents something and starts practicing it, and then Mary
produces a patent for the same invention and demands that John stop, but
John proves that Mary only dreamed it up and never actually proved it
would work, I believe that means Mary didn't invent the thing, so her
patent is invalid and John doesn't have to stop.
This is not a realistic scenario. Instead you would invoke the First
inventor defence act ...
Patents with source code
Looking for prior art
Are you really sure about this? I am not.
> pretty much anything can be patented without having to give a demonstration
This is not the same thing. In pharmaceutical patent prosecution you can apply for a patent for a drug but you will normally have to demonstrate the drug has the effect you claim it has.
> it is up to the patent office to prove that an invention does not in fact work
Some times, yes. And this is why examiners hate perpetual motion machines in certain jurisdiction since the examiner has to demonstrate why it cannot work and so so without referring to the thermodynamic law that energy cannot be created, only transformed. And some of these inventors can be rather clever.