Is the contract restricted to the buyers, or to the "any 3rd party" of the GPL?

Posted Jan 26, 2026 17:30 UTC (Mon) by kleptog (subscriber, #1183)
In reply to: Is the contract restricted to the buyers, or to the "any 3rd party" of the GPL? by Wol
Parent article: SFC v. VIZIO: who can enforce the GPL?

>What do you mean - "no offer"? The licence IS the offer, just like the price tag on the shelf of a supermarket. In UK terms, an "offer to treat".
> "No negotiation"? The price tag is "take it or leave it", just like the licence.
> And acceptance? "Fine, I accept those terms and I'll pay the price". Supermarket or licence.

Please do not assume the rest of the world works like it does in the UK/US. Yes, if you pay for software there is a contract which grants you a licence, but the contract is not the licence. If you are not paying, e.g. GPL software, then there is no contract, just the licence that grants unilateral terms. If you violate the terms of an EULA it can be both contract violation and copyright infringement, because you can violate both the contract and the licence separately.

In Common Law systems, the distinction between a contract and a license is fuzzy, which makes discussion harder due to overlapping legal terminology. Here they are two strictly separated categories. You cannot "accept" a GPL licence in Dutch law, it just doesn't mean anything. Which is why the GPLv3 got rid of that language. The author granted you rights, you have them, you don't have to "accept" them first.

AIUI Common Law systems never developed a robust framework of "unilateral granting of permissions", but try to convert everything into some form of "contract", which falls apart once you start dealing with intangibles like software.

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Is the contract restricted to the buyers, or to the "any 3rd party" of the GPL?

Posted Jan 26, 2026 17:37 UTC (Mon) by paulj (subscriber, #341) [Link]

> Please do not assume the rest of the world works like it does in the UK/US.

Worth also bearing in mind the rest of the EU doesn't per se work like NL. There is at least 1 (or 2?) EU member state that derives from English common law* - Ireland (and Malta?).

Though, it may be the GPL does not lead to a contract in common law jurisdictions either. Not clear to me - nor are the implications clear. There was an article on LWN in '03 from Pamela Jones: https://lwn.net/Articles/61292/

* Note, English common law - not "UK common law". Scotland has a distinct system.

Is the contract restricted to the buyers, or to the "any 3rd party" of the GPL?

Posted Jan 26, 2026 18:24 UTC (Mon) by Wol (subscriber, #4433) [Link]

> In Common Law systems, the distinction between a contract and a license is fuzzy, which makes discussion harder due to overlapping legal terminology. Here they are two strictly separated categories.

Given that a contract (under our legal system, at least) is assumed to be a meeting of minds, I would agree that a licence is not a contract.

But a licence is *the terms of the contract*.

Just like, if you have a copy of the GPL3, that copy is not a licence. But when you copy (or other restricted actions) some GPL software, that *copy* of the GPL is the terms and conditions that let you copy it.

So the question is - "does a contract exist, the agreed terms being the GPL"? And if you're going to say the licence and the contract are two separate things, I'd agree with you. I'd just argue that you cannot take advantage of the GPL without bringing a contract into existence. Which was my point about does the offender admit to (criminal) copyright violations, or breach of contract.

Cheers,
Wol