> The rich countries are not subsidizing the poor, profit is instead made from both, according to their ability to pay.
While this is always true with regards to manufacturing cost (also known as the marginal cost, e.g. the cost of making one more item), if you include a proportional part of the development cost, the price of the product in poor countries might in fact be "below cost".
Thus, the company makes a larger profit by selling their product in poor countries at a lower prise, compared to not selling at all in those countries, but that don't mean they would make a profit if all their sales were at that price. This is what makes price discrimination (and it's enforcement) an ethically difficult issue...