| |||||||||||||
When does the FSF own your code?When does the FSF own your code?Posted Mar 20, 2013 0:29 UTC (Wed) by marcH (subscriber, #57642)In reply to: When does the FSF own your code? by Seegras Parent article: When does the FSF own your code?
There is similar and very common confusion in French: "Copyright" is almost always translated to "droit d'auteur" but this translation is inaccurate.
Just like pretty much everywhere else there are two quite distinct types of "droits d'auteur": the "droit moral" on one hand and the "droit patrimonial" (basically: usage/economic rights) on the other hand. The former is indeed inalienable and perpetual but the "right to copy" is only relevant to the latter.
Unlike German ones, French speakers don't have the excuse of confusing names yet most people only ever heard about the very general "droit(s) d'auteur".
While there seems to be some minor differences all this is surprisingly consistent across the world; probably thanks to the Berne convention.
(Log in to post comments)
When does the FSF own your code? Posted Mar 20, 2013 0:46 UTC (Wed) by neilbrown (subscriber, #359) [Link]
Chuckling to myself that if it is "droit moral" on the one hand, then maybe it should be "gauche patrimonial" on the other ... abusing language is so much fun.
When does the FSF own your code? Posted Mar 20, 2013 8:50 UTC (Wed) by mpr22 (subscriber, #60784) [Link] Not everywhere that has moral rights legislation has the "droit de retrait et de repentir", though.
|
|||||||||||||