Right, but I wasn't asking about the kernel's memory allocation failing -- I was asking about
the kernel's virtual memory allocation succeeding by using memory that had already been
offered to a process as the result of malloc().
Oh -- perhaps I misunderstood and you were answering my question. Are you saying that the
kernel will fail to dynamically allocate memory rather than allocate memory which has already
been promised to a process (when overcommit_memory == 2)?